Kerala Public Service Commission has decided to conduct an OMR exam for the post of Welfare Officer in the department of Jail on 9th August 2019. Syllabus for the Kerala PSC Welfare Officer Exam is mentioned below.
Part I:
General Knowledge, Current Affairs & Renaissance in Kerala
Part II:
Questions based on Educational Qualification
Candidates can submit their confirmation for writing this examination through one time registration profile from 23/05/2019 to 11/06/2019
It will be an objective type test for a maximum of 100 marks. Medium of question paper is English. You will get a maximum of 90 minutes to complete the exam.
Exam Date: 09/08/2019 Friday
Category Number: 124/2018
Welfare Officer exams of Kerala PSC are based on the educational qualifications. So it is important to know the educational qualifications mentioned by Kerala Public Service Commission in their official notification. ie, a maximum of 80 Questions from Part-2. And we can expect 20 Questions from Part-1 which is Kerala Renaissance, General Knowledge and Latest Current Affairs.
Kerala Public Service Commission conducts Technical based psc exams both OMR and Online tests mostly every week. All these technical exams contains 10-20 questions from Kerala Renaissance, GK and Latest Current Affairs. PSC Library's collection of Recently Asked PSC Questions.
Kerala PSC Welfare Officer Previous Question Paper:
Previous Questions of Welfare Officer Exam Conducted by Kerala PSC. Answer Key is provided after the 100 Questions ( in the bottom of the page )
1. The total number of villages in Kerala
(a) l820
(b) 1420
(c) 1452
(d) 991
2. The total length of the coastline of Kerala
(a) 480 kms
(b) 830 kms.
(c) 580 kms.
(d) 500 kms
3. Yakshagana is a dance drama from....
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Chennai
4. Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana aims at helping...
(a) Women
(b) Youth of the weaker sections
(c) Educated unemployed urban youth
(d) Handicapped people
5. –––––– Vitamin is also known as Thiamine
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin C
6. Genes are located in ....
(a) Blood
(b) Tissues
(c) Chromosomes
(d) Spleen
7. Otology is the study of ....
(a) Lung diseases
(b) Mouth diseases
(c) Diseases of the ear
(d) Brain diseases
8. ............is a substance which acts like a fuel in driving the body
(a) Protection
(b) Vitamin
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Minerals
9. Pedology is the study of....
(a) Child diseases
(b) Skin
(c) Soil
(d) Habitats
10. The study of the production of better offspring by the careful selection of parents is called....
(a) Genetics
(b) Cryogenics
(c) Eugenics
(d) Chronobiology
11. A welfare state has a moral obligation to provide welfare services especially to....
(a) All sections of the society
(b) The women
(c) To the weaker sections of the community
(d) The children and the sick people
12. The Community Development programme was started in...
(a) 1950
(b) 1959
(c) 1952
(d) 1956
13. The term Scheduled Castes came into being instead of the term ‘Suppressed Classes’ since the enactment of....
(a) Census Report of 1921
(b) 1961 Census Report
(c) The Government of India Act 1935
(d) The Constitution of India
14. The term ‘Untouchables’ was used to refer to the Depressed Castes by...
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) William Bentinck
15. ............ makes any type of discrimination against the Scheduled castes in public places etc. punishable
(a) Government of India Act 1935
(b) The Constitution of India
(c) The Untouchability Offence Act 1955
(d) 1921 Census Report
16. ..... is a scheme aimed at providing free housing to people of Scheduled Tribe and Scheduled Caste.
(a) Prime Minister’s Gramodaya Yojana
(b) Prime Minister’s Gram Sadak Yojana
(c) Indira AwasYojana
(d) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
17. The Panchayat Raj Act aims at....
(a) The centralization of power
(b) Distribution of grants
(c) Decentralized planning
(d) Improvement of Infrastructure
18. Most members of delinquent juvenile gans are....
(a) Paranoid
(b) Psychopaths
(c) Mentally retarded
(d) Neurotic
19. One of the symptoms of social disorganisation is .................
(a) Constitutional Amendments
(b) Family planning
(c) Conflict of mores and institutions
(d) Family disorganisation
20. The first country in the world to launch the National Family Planning Programme in 1951 is.....
(a) USA
(b) Indonesia
(c) India
(d) China
21. The Employees State Insurance Scheme is based on...
(a) The Constitution of India
(b) The Workmen’s Compensation Act of 1923
(c) The report of Prof. Adarkar and the I.L.O. conventions
(d) The report of the Royal Commission on Labour in India in 1923
22. The Welfare Scheme for children known as I.C.D.S. (Integrated Child Development Services Scheme) was initiated by....
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Lal Bahadur Shasthri
23. NORAD is an agency which assists the welfare programmes for the....
(a) Physically handicapped persons
(b) Mentally retarded children
(c) SC/ST women and widows
(d) AIDS victims
24. When sociologists refer to slum mentality, they mean
(a) Poverty
(b) Unemployment
(c) Increasing Lethargy manual inefficiency and antisocial outlook
(d) Violence
25. The common name of a village sociologically imply...
(a) Patriotism
(b) Ethnocentrism
(c) Community sentiment
(d) Sectional loyalty
26. Article ............... of the Constitution of India forbids the practice of untouchability in any form
(a) 22
(b) 320
(c) 216
(d) 17
27. .......... refers to the process by which divergent mores of sub-groups are reconciled to achieve homogeneity
(a) Adaptation
(b) Assimilation
(c) Accommodation
(d) Syncretism
28. ............... measures the patterns of individual’s social action
(a) The interview
(b) Survey/questionnaire
(c) The Versetehen method
(d) Sociometry
29. Mark out the essential element of a village community
(a) Wells for irrigation
(b) Land for trilling
(c) Large number of people
(d) Definite territory
30. The main basis of caste inequality is ....
(a) Racial differences
(b) Cultural diversity
(c) Occupational heterogeneity
(d) The principle of purity and pollution
Choose from among the given options the word which is the nearest in meaning to the given word or idiomatic
expression:
31. OFFICIOUS
(a) Dealing with the office work
(b) Office routine
(c) To hinder smooth working
(d) Too eager to help or advise
32. A GRASS WIDOW
(a) A young widow
(b) Widow who has illicit relations with men
(c) A working old women
(d) A woman whose husband is temporarily away from her
33. HOBSON’S CHOICE
(a) Lion’s share
(b) The best choice
(c) The last chance
(d) Option of taking the one offered or nothing
34. Choose from the options the antonym of the word given: PARSIMONIOUS
(a) Hereditary
(b) Selfish
(c) Religious
(d) Generous
Fill the blanks in the following sentence using the appropriate idiomatic expression from the given list:
35. To try to establish world peace is only...
(a) A fair play
(b) An oily tongue
(c) A wet blanket
(d) A wild goose chase
Complete the following sentences using the apt word from the given options:
36. All his remarks were meant to.. ..the reputation and honour enjoyed by the minister
(a) Arrogate
(b) Surrogate
(c) Prorocatory
(d) Derogate
37. His negligence of duty will be ... to his promotions.
(a) Complemental
(b) Determinant
(c) Incremental
(d) Detrimental
38. That which cannot be taken by force of arms is ....
(a) Indefatigable
(b) Invincible
(c) Infallible
(d) Impregnable
39. .............. is the theory that actions are right because they are useful
(a) Authoritarianism
(b) Pragmatism
(c) Machiavellism
(d) Utilitarianism
40. Aeroplanes are kept in...
(a) Dockyard
(b) Velodrome
(c) Aerodrome
(d) Hangars
41. Doctor is to medicine as teacher is to...
(a) Class
(b) College
(c) School
(d) Lecture
42. Procrastinator is to time as extravagant is to ................
(a) Spending
(b) Wealth
(c) Stringiness
(d) Money
In each of the following questions there is a key sentence followed by four alternative sentences. Out of these four options you are required to tick mark the one which is the closest restatement of the given sentence:
43. For all its recreational values Television or an addiction to it has proved an effective vehicle for separating viewers from their brains or their faculty of thinking
(a) Television has provided recreation but it has resulted in people’s inability to think
(b) An addiction to Television is harmful because the recreation it provides renders people in capable of thinking or using their brains
(c) Due to its recreational functions Television has led people to grow out of the habit of thinking
(d) Although Television provides recreation too much viewing has resulted in marring the viewer’s capacity to think
44. Wars have taken as big a toll of human life as natural disasters in the last decade.
(a) Wars and natural disasters alike have caused loss of life
(b) Wars and natural disasters have been the greatest source of life in the last decade.
(c) The last decade has witnessed loss of life through wars and natural disasters
(d) In the last decade loss of life has been as much due to wars as natural disasters. Tick mark the choice that
correctly fills the blank in the given sentences:
45. I have written a book......African History and a book for children...Africa and its people
(a) on, on
(b) about, about
(c) about, on
(d) on about
46. Washing machines.. ..popular in India in the last ten years or 80.
(a) are become
(b) became
(c) are becoming
(d) have become
47. He used to pray everyday, believing that as long as he ––––– so, he would be safe.
(a) Does
(b) will do
(c) is doing
(d) did
48. If only he.. .told us the truth in the beginning, things wouldn’t have gone wrong
(a) should have
(b) has
(c) would have
(d) had
The following sentences are divided into five sections (A, B, C, D, E) each. Read the sentences carefully and mark the incorrect section, if any, putting a tick mark. If you feel the sentences are correct, mark the section E;
49. If you (a) had requested (b) she would have (c) been giving you the book
(d)No error (e)
51. The main metal used by the Indus Valley people was..,.
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Iron
(d) Bronze
52. The Vedic saying ‘war begins in the minds of men’appears in .............
(a) Atharva Veda
(b) Yajur Veda
(c) Sama Veda
(d) Rig Veda
53. The dynasty of the Sangam Age first mentioned by Megasthanese is .............
(a) Pandya
(b) Chola
(c) Chera
(d) Jainas
54. The main centre or meeting point of Indo- Roman trade in ancient times was...............
(a) Alexandria
(b) Calicut
(c) Rome
(d) Karaikkal
55. ........................ organised the Public Works Department in India in 1854 - 55
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Mayo
(d) Robert Clive
56. The famous ‘1935 Minutes’ on education was associated with................
(a) Lord McCaulay
(b) Sir William Jones
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) M. G. Ranade
57. ............... gave the slogan “Jai Hind’
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
58. The Rowlatt Act was passed in...............
(a) 1919
(b) 1857
(c) 1921
(d) 1935
59. ........................ declared that the British would quit India by June 1948
(a) Clement Atlee
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Lord Ellenborough
60. ............. was the Governor General of India during the revolt of 1857.
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Wellesly
(c) Lord Mayo
(d) Lord Dalhousie
61. A person can apply for the citizenship of India after staying in India for a minimum period of.........................
(a) 5 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 12 years
62. ................ has the power to suspend the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India during National emergency.
(a) The President
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Chief Justice
63. The concept of Directive Principles was borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) Ireland
(b) England
(c) Greece
(d) France
64. The minimum age prescribed for the election to the post of the President of India is
(a) 35
(b) 25
(c) 40
(d) 50
65. A bill introduced by a member or a minister goes through ............
(a) Three readings
(b) Two readings
(c) Four Readings
(d) One reading
66. The total number of languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution is.........
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 24
(d) 8
67. The President made the proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 for the first time in the year .............
(a) 1962
(b) 1975
(c) 1992
(d) 1948
68. The purpose of appointing the Sarkaria Commission was to examine ..........
(a) The Centre - State relation
(b) The language Problem
(c) The reservation issue
(d) The educational problems
69. The Tenth Plan aims at a growth rate of
(a) 8%
(b) 6%
(c) 5%
(d) 11%
70. The Tenth Plan aims at a reduction in population at the rate of...............
(a) 16.5%
(b) ll%
(c) 10%
(d) 8.5%
71. Human Poverty Index is determined on the basis of ...................
(a) Backwardness in the areas of Economics Education and Health
(b) Educational Backwardness
(c) Unemployment
(d) Economic Backwardness
72. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and not more than ........... number of Judges.
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 15
73. The Panchayat Raj was first introduced in the State of .............
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Kerala
74. Which of the following slogan is associated with Gandhiji?
(a) Do or die
(b) Jai Hind
(c) Vande Mataram
(d) Inquilab Zindabad
75. Who suggested and persuaded the family of Gandhiji to send Gandhiji to England to study law?
(a) Mavji Deve
(b) Maganlal Gandhi
(c) Laxmidas
(d) Sheik Mehtab
76. Gandhiji’s famous Harijan - uplift tour started from...............
(a) Porbandar
(b) Wardha
(c)Varanasi
(d) Dandi
77. In which year was the first Five - Year plan of India started?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1956
(d) 1955
78. Which State in India has the largest coast line ?
(a) Kcrala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
79. Bodh Gaya is situated in
(a) Nepal
(b) Bihar
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Bhutan
80. The Indian States were re-organised on the basis of language in the year...............
(a) 1947
(b) 1956
(c) 1951
(d) 1950
81. The place known as the Queen of the Nilgiris is ............
(a) Munnar
(b) Ootacamund (Ootty)
(c) Anamudi
(d) Kodaikanal
82. Decibel is a unit of ..............
(a) Light
(b) Sound
(c) Speed
(d) Height
83. The science of space travel is known as
(a) Aeronautics
(b) Astronautics
(c) Robotics
(d) Cosmonautics
84. The first Indian Communication Satellite was known as ................
(a) Luna
(b) Apple
(c) Appolo
(d) Explorer
85. Cancun became famous in 2003 because of ...................
(a) Tourism
(b) WTO Meet
(c) World Athletic Meet
(d) Film Festival
86. The winner of Gandhi Peace Prize for 2003 is ..............
(a) Kofi Annan
(b) Vaclav Havel
(c) George Bush
(d) Tony Blair
87. The winner of Nobel Prize for Literature for 2003 is ................
(a) Adonis
(b) J. M. Coetze
(c) Saramago
(d) Salman Rushdie
88. The World Athletic Meet in which Anju Bobby George won a medal was held at
(a) Pusan
(b) Paris
(c) Manchester
(d) Sydney
89. The communication satellite launched by India on 28th September 2003 is ...............
(a) Insat 2
(b) Insat 3 E
(c) PSLV-3
(d) Insat 2 D
90. The UN Award for Human Rights was conferred in 2003 on ..........
(a) George Bush
(b) Sergio De Mello
(c) Collin Powel
(d) Yasar Arafat
91. To which country does Kofi Annan belong?
(a) South Africa
(b) Ghana
(c) Nigeria
(d) Uganda
92. Who was the editor of Vivekodayam which started publishing in 1904?
(a) Vallathol
(b) Kumaran Asan
(c) Ulloor
(d) Kesari Balakrishna Pillai
93. Hortus Malabaricus was written in ............... language
(a) English
(b) Latin
(c) Malayalam
(d) German
94. Mount Everest is named after George Everest. Who was George Everest?
(a) British Prime Minister
(b) Surveyor General of India
(c) British Governor- General
(d) Viceroy
95. The Post Office Savings Bank system was introduced in India in the year................
(a) 1890
(b) 1882
(c) 1948
(d) 1912
96. The book “Samkshepa Vedartham’ was printed in 1772 in ........................
(a) Kerala
(b) Rome
(c) Germany
(d) Madras
97. World Environment Day is on ..........
(a) August 6
(b) June 5
(c) September 11
(d) September 5
98. Human Rights Day is observed on ................
(a) March 27
(b) December 10
(c) September 5
(d) August 1
99. In Which year was the Asian Development Bank set up?
(a) 1975
(b) 1966
(c) 1958
(d) 1962
100.The biggest district in Kerala is
(a) Idukki
(b) Palaghat
(c) Malappuram
(d) Kottayam
1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(c) 11.(c) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(c) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20.(c) 21.(c) 22.(c) 23.(c) 24.(c) 25.(c) 26.(d) 27. (d) 28.(d) 29.(d) 30.(d)
31.(d) 32.(d) 33.(d) 34.(d) 35.(d) 36.(d) 37.(d) 38.(d) 39.(d) 40.(d) 41.(d) 42.(d) 43.(d) 44.(d) 45.(d) 46.(d) 47.(d) 48.(d) 49.(d) 50.(d) 51.(a) 52.(a) 53.(a) 54.(a) 55.(a) 56.(a) 57.(a) 58.(a) 59.(a) 60.(a) 61.(a) 62.(a) 63.(a) 64.(a) 65.(a) 66. None of the choices is correct. Now 8th Schedule comprises of 22 languages 67.(a) 68.(a) 69.(a) 70.(a) 71.(a) 72.(a) 73.(a) 74.(a) 75.(a) 76.(b) 77.(b) 78. None of the choice is correct. Gujarat is the correct answer. 79.(b) 80.(b) 81.(b) 82.(b) 83.(b) 84.(b) 85.(b) 86.(b) 87.(b) 88.(b) 89.(b) 90.(b) 91.(b) 92.(b) 93.(b) 94.(b) 95.(b) 96.(b) 97.(b) 98.(b) 99.(b) 100. (b)
0 Comments: